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Answer discussion post: Discuss the following topic in your group. In Book 1 of the Nicomachean Ethics, Aristotle writes that "Nobody would call a man just who does not enjoy acting justly, nor generous who does not enjoy generous actions, and so on. If this is true, actions performed in conformity with virtue are in themselves pleasant" (21). What does he mean here? Is he right? Is acting virtuously pleasurable? Can someone be called virtuous who doesn't take pleasure in acting virtuously? Can you think of any examples where this wouldn't be the case? Just need two paragraphs.

Date Posted: 01/09/2015
Category: Philosophy
Due Date: 02/09/2015
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Answer discussion post: Discuss the following topic in your group. In Book 1 of the Nicomachean Ethics, Aristotle writes that "Nobody would call a man just who does not enjoy acting justly, nor generous who does not enjoy generous actions, and so on. If this is true, actions performed in conformity with virtue are in themselves pleasant" (21). What does he mean here? Is he right? Is acting virtuously pleasurable? Can someone be called virtuous who doesn't take pleasure in acting virtuously? Can you think of any examples where this wouldn't be the case? Just need two paragraphs.
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